Consider the ring $R = \mathbb{C}[X,Y]$ and let $I = (X,Y)\subset R$ be the ideal generated by $X$ and $Y$. In the exercise I have proven that $R/I \otimes_R I \cong R/I \oplus R/I$ and that $Q(R) \otimes_R I \cong Q(R)$ where $R/I$ is viewed as a quotient module and $Q(R)$ is the field of fractions of $R$ viewed as an $R$-module. Next the exercise asks to conclude that $I$ is not a free $R$-module.
However I do not see how this follows from the two isomorphisms above. Can someone help? Thanks in advance.
By the way, I am aware of different solutions (for example The ideal $(x,y)$ is not a free $K[x,y]$-module). But I am particularly interested in how these isomorphisms help to reach the same conclusion.
Suppose that $I$ is a free $R$-module. Since $I$ is finitely generated there exists a positive integer $m$ such that $I\simeq R^m$ as $R$-modules. From $R/I \otimes_R I \simeq R/I \oplus R/I$ and $I\simeq R^m$ we get $(R/I)^m\simeq (R/I)^2$. Now note that this is not only an isomorphism of $R$-modules, but it is also an isomorphism of $R/I$-modules, and by the invariant basis number property it follows that $m=2$.
From $Q(R) \otimes_R I \simeq Q(R)$ and $I\simeq R^2$ we get $Q(R)^2\simeq Q(R)$. Note that this is also an isomorphism of $Q(R)$-modules (that is, vector spaces), a contradiction.