I am working on a problem, but I don't know whether or not to use math induction on it. Here's the problem:
Prove that for all integers $n \geq 1$,
$$1 \cdot 2 + 2 \cdot 3 + \cdots + n(n + 1) = 2\binom{n + 2}{3}$$
If I used math induction, I'd first pick out a basis which would be $1$. Then I'd substitute $n$ for $1$. Which would be:
$$1(1 + 1) = 2\binom{1+2}{3}$$
the left hand side is equal to the right hand side, thus we have verified this part of the proof.
Next we look at $n + 1$: $$n + 1(n + 2) = 2\binom{n + 3}{3}$$
How do we prove the last part?
Check carefully and algebraically each step:
$$\overbrace{1\cdot2+2\cdot3+\ldots+n(n+1)}^{=2\binom{n+2}3}+(n+1)(n+2)=2\frac{(n+2)!}{3!(n-1)!}+(n+1)(n+2)=$$
$$=\frac{2(n+2)!n+6(n+2)!}{6n!}=\frac{(n+2)!}{3n!}\left(n+3\right)=2\frac{(n+3)!}{3!n!}=2\binom{n+3}3$$