Let $(X,\mathcal{R},\mu)$ be a measure space and let $f : X \to \mathbb{R}$ be a function. If $f^{-1}([a,\infty))$ is measurable for all $a \in \mathbb{R}$, then $f$ is measurable. But say all I can show is that $f^{-1}([a,\infty))$ is measurable for almost all $a \in \mathbb{R}$. Is that enough to prove that $f$ is measurable?
2026-04-01 10:22:29.1775038949
Proving a Function $X \to \mathbb{R}$ Measurable
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This answer explains why my comment is true. I will divide the argument in two parts. Here $A \in \mathcal B (\mathbb R)$.