To prove that given three points $x,y,z\in{R}$ and a number $a$, there is only one $w\in{R}$ that satisfies: The proportion $[x,y;z,w]:=\frac{(x-z)(y-w)}{(x-w)(y-z)}$ equals to $a$. I don't know how it can exactly be showed. Is it right to take $\hat{w} \neq w$, suppose that it satisfies the above property and get $\hat{w} = w$ in contrast?
2026-03-30 03:54:56.1774842896
Proving a unique property in the projective space
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Say $$f(w)= \frac{(x-z)(y-w)}{(x-w)(y-z)}$$
We see that $f$ is fractional linear function (in general $f(w)={aw+b\over cw+d}$ which is injective if $ad-bc\ne 0$) and there for a conclusion.