Problem
Prove that $\displaystyle P(A \mid B \cap C) = \frac{P(A\mid C) \cdot P(B\mid A \cap C)}{P(B\mid C)}$.
Thoughts
I'm having some trouble interpreting $\displaystyle P(A\mid B \cap C)$, and whether it means $\displaystyle P((A\mid B) \cap C)$ or $\displaystyle P(A\mid (B \cap C))$.
Does the former make sense at all? The probability of (A given B) and C?
And in either case, I don't really know where to start with this one, as I don't know what to assume as given.
It certainly looks like a case of Bayes' theorem, but the second probability in the numberator throws me off.
First of all, $P(A|B\cap C)$ means $P(A|(B\cap C))$.
Then, you can use the definition of conditional probability: $P(A|B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}$
LHS: $P(A|B\cap C)=\frac{P(A\cap B\cap C)}{P(B\cap C)}$
RHS: $\frac{P(A|C)P(B|A\cap C)}{P(B|C)}=\frac{\frac{P(A\cap C)}{P(C)}\frac{P(B\cap A\cap C)}{P(A\cap C)}}{\frac{P(B\cap C)}{P(C)}}=\frac{P(B\cap A\cap C)}{P(B\cap C)}=\frac{P(A\cap B\cap C)}{P(B\cap C)}$
So, LHS=RHS.
Hope that helps!