Given $f_{n} : [a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb R$ is uniformly Lipschitz and $f_{n}\rightarrow f$, how can I show that $f$ is Lipschitz?
$f_{n}$ is uniformly Lipschitz $\leftrightarrow \exists K > 0$ such that for all $n$ and for every $x,y\in [a,b]$ we have $|f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(y)| < K|x-y|$.
$f_{n}\rightarrow f \leftrightarrow \forall~\epsilon>0~~\exists~N$ such that $\forall~n>N$ we have $\mid f_{n}(x) - f(x)\mid<\epsilon~~~(=\mid x-y\mid?)$
Then we have
\begin{align} |f(x)-f(y)| &\leq |f(x)- f_{n}(x)| + |f_{n}(y)-f(y)| + |f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(y)| \\ &\leq |x-y| + |x-y| + K|x-y| \\ &\leq (K + 2) |x - y| \end{align}
which shows that $f$ is Lipschitz. Can anybody tell me if this makes sense? Sorry if layout is poor.
Ypu are almost correct.
Ιn your proof you must take $n_1$ for $x$ and $n_2$ for $y$ and then take $N=\max\{n_1,n_2\}$
After that the inequalities are correct.
There is a simpler proof: