Let $f_n(x)$ be a sequence of functions that converge for $f(x)$ on $x\in[a,b]$ but it's not uniformly convergent on the same range of $x$.
Prove that $f(x)$ is not uniformly convergent on $x\in(a,b)$.
Here is my attempt : using contrapositive I assumed $f(x)$ is uniformly convergent on $x\in(a,b)$ then $\sup_{x\in(a,b)}|f_n(x)-f(x)|\to 0$.
I'm assuming that from this point I should conclude that $\sup_{x\in[a,b]}|f_n(x)-f(x)| \to 0$ which makes the statement true but I'm not sure what should I do next and is it possible that ($\limsup_{x\in(a,b)}|f_n(x)-f(x)|=\limsup_{x\in[a,b]}|f_n(x)-f(x)|$).
If it was the other way around it would be much easier I suppose.
Assume $f_n$ converges uniformly to $f$ on $(a,b)$ and pointwise to $f$ on $[a,b]$. Then, for all $\epsilon>0$, there exists
Therefore, if $N(\epsilon)= \max\{N_1(\epsilon),N_2(\epsilon),N_3(\epsilon)\}$, we obtain: for all $\epsilon>0$, there exist $N(\epsilon)$ st. for all $n>N(\epsilon)$ and $x\in [a,b]$, $|f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon$.
This is a contradiction, since $f_n$ is not uniformly convergent on $[a,b]$.