Below is the proof from Billingsley's Convergence of Probability Measures. However, in the proof, I don't understand the final step.
That is, we want to show that$$ \int_0^\alpha P[t<X_n<\alpha] \,\mathrm{d}t \to \int_0^\alpha P[t<X<\alpha] \,\mathrm{d}t $$ using the bounded convergence theorem. However, to use the bounded convergence theorem, we need that $P[t<X_n<\alpha]$ converges pointwise to $P[t<X<\alpha]$. But the function used here, $\mathbb{1}_{(t,\alpha)}(x)$ is not a continuous function. So how do we show pointwise convergence here? And what does $P[X=\alpha]=0$ have to do here?

We know that
Recall that there are at most countably many $t$ such that $P(X=t)>0$. With $\alpha$ chosen so that $P(X=\alpha)=0$ it follows that
But a countable collection of real numbers $t$ has Lebesgue measure $0$, so by (1), (2), and the assumption that $X_n \Rightarrow X$, we have
By the bounded convergence theorem we conclude that $\int_0^\alpha P(t < X_n < \alpha)dt \to \int_0^\alpha P(t<X<\alpha)dt.$