Sorry, this is a really simple question, but I'm trying to teach myself calculus and can't figure it out. If we define $\log(b) = \frac{db^x}{dx}(0)$ how does one prove $\log(b^a) = a\log(b)$? I tried using the definition of derivative but got stuck at $\lim_{h \to 0}\frac{b^{ah} - 1}{h}$.
2026-04-04 02:25:28.1775269528
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Proving $\log(b^a) = a \log(b)$ using calculus
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Hint: $\displaystyle \log(b^a) = \frac{d(b^{ax})}{dx}(0)$ and using the chain rule $$\frac{d}{dx}b^{ax} = \frac{d}{dx}(b^{x})^a = a(b^x)^{a-1}\frac{d}{dx}b^{x}$$
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Using $(b^a)^x = b^{ax}$ and the chain rule, we get \begin{align} \log(b^a) &= \left.\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx} b^{ax}\right|_{x=0} = \left.\left(\frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dy} b^y\right)\right|_{y=0} \cdot\left.\left( \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx} ax\right)\right|_{x=0} = \log(b)\cdot a. \end{align}
If $a\not=0$, let $k=ah$ and note that $h\to0$ iff $k\to0$, which gives
$$\lim_{h\to0}{(b^a)^h-1\over h}=a\lim_{h\to0}{b^{ah}-1\over ah}=a\lim_{k\to0}{b^k-1\over k}$$
If $a=0$, then $(b^a)^h-1=0$, so the limit is obviously $0$.