Whenever I want to prove that some functor is (left/right) adjoint to another, I (mostly using hom-set definition) go on smoothly to prove the "isomorphism of the corresponding hom-sets", until it turns to prove the naturality condition: It really sucks! I can't move anymore.
For example, in the case of $(-)\times A \dashv (-)^A$, where $(-)\times A , (-)^A$ are functors $\mathscr C \to \mathscr C $, I can easily confirm that the bijection $Hom_{\mathscr C}(X \times A,Y) \cong Hom_{\mathscr C}(X,Y^A)$ holds for any $X,Y \in \mathscr C$ (by the way this hold by the definition of an exponential, or in general, by its universal mapping property). What I can't prove is that this is natural.
Now I'm wondering if this is easier than I think, which it seems so, as in no reference I see people struggling with the naturality condition, they ignore it so that it's something quite obvious.
Any help will be thanked!
It's often easier to use the "initial object in a comma category" definition of the adjoint, because it's much more concrete. Given $A \in \mathcal{C}$, you must find $i_A : A \to GFA$ such that for any $f: A \to GX$, there is a unique $g: FA \to X$ such that $Gg: GFA \to GX$ has $Gg \circ i_A = f$.