Proving that an infinite sum equals a Lebesgue integral

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The problem is from Bass. I have to prove

$$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(p+k)^2} = - \int_0^1 \frac{x^p}{1-x}\log x \ \mathrm{d}x$$

I am lost on this. I am trying to find some sequence I can use to use one of the convergence theorems, but I can't come up with one. Is that even an approach that would work?

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$HINT$ $$\frac{x}{1-x}=\sum_{k \in \Bbb{N}} x^k ,\forall x \in [0,1)$$

Then apply Beppo-Levy Theorem to the non-negative functions on $[0,1)$ $$f_k(x)=x^{p+k-1}(-\log{x})$$

To tackle the integrals of $f_k$ make the change of variable $x=e^t$