This is another identity of Euler's relating $\pi$ to the prime numbers, available here
\begin{align*}
\dfrac{\pi}{2}=\prod_{k=2}^{\infty}\left(1+\dfrac{(-1)^{\dfrac{p_{{k}}-1}{2}}}{p_{k}} \right )^{-1}
\end{align*}
How does one prove this?
This is another identity of Euler's relating $\pi$ to the prime numbers, available here
\begin{align*}
\dfrac{\pi}{2}=\prod_{k=2}^{\infty}\left(1+\dfrac{(-1)^{\dfrac{p_{{k}}-1}{2}}}{p_{k}} \right )^{-1}
\end{align*}
How does one prove this?
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