I want to prove that if $\sum_{k = m}^{\infty}P(A_k) < \infty$ then $\lim_{m \rightarrow \infty}\sum_{k = m}^\infty P(A_k) = 0$.
Bu I am not quite there, I will write where I got to trying to do this.
So $\sum_{k = m}^\infty P(A_k)$ converges because the sequence of partial sums is increasing and bounded.
Denote the sequence of partial sums as $b_a = P(A_1)+ P(A_2)+ \cdots + P(A_a) $
This means that for every $\epsilon >0$ there exists a $p \in N$ s.t. whenever $a \ge p$ then $|b_a - L| < \epsilon \implies -\epsilon < b_a - L < \epsilon \implies -\epsilon - b_a < - L \implies L < \epsilon + b_a $.
Now we know that $P(A_m)+ P(A_{m+1})+ \cdots \le L < \epsilon + b_a $ so, focusing now on the $\lim_{m \rightarrow \infty}$, if we choose $m = p$ we get that for every $\epsilon > 0$:
$$\left|\sum_{k = m}^\infty P(A_k) \right| \cdots$$
It seems pretty straightforward but I can't seem to pick the right $m$ to do the job.
Let $S_n = \Sigma_{k=1}^n P(A_k) $ and as $\Sigma_{k=m}^{\infty} P(A_k) <\infty$, we can deduce that $S_n$ converges and lets say it converges to $S < \infty$. Now, observe that $\Sigma_{k=m}^{\infty} P(A_k) = S-S_m$ and let $m \to \infty $ on both sides. So, we have
$$\lim_{m \to \infty}\Sigma_{k=m}^{\infty} P(A_k) = \lim_{m \to \infty}(S-S_m) = 0$$