I am working on the following problem and I've arrived at an integral which I need to show equals the proposition.
Prove that $\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^{k=n}\dfrac{(-1)^{k}{n\choose k}}{n+k}=\dfrac{1}{n{2n\choose n}}$.
My Attempt:
Let us consider for the sake of convenience the notation ${n\choose k}=\text{C}_k$ $$\begin{aligned}(1-x)^n&=\text{C}_0-\text{C}_1x+\text{C}_2x^2-\text{C}_3x^3+\ldots+(-1)^{n}\text{C}_nx^n\\ \int _{0}^{1}x^{n-1}(1-x)^n \mathrm dx&=\int_{0}^{1}\text{C}_0x^{n-1}-\text{C}_1x^n+\text{C}_2x^{n+1}+\ldots+(-1)^{n}\text{C}_nx^{2n-1}\mathrm dx\\ \int_{0}^{1}x^{n-1}(1-x)^n \mathrm dx&=\sum_{k=0}^{k=n}\dfrac{(-1)^{n}\text{C}_k}{n+k}\end{aligned}$$
I now need to prove that the integral equals $\left[{2n\choose n}\right]^{-1}$. But I am unclear on how to proceed with simplifying the integral. I would appreciate any hints apart from usage of Integration by Parts technique. Thanks
Let's put $$I_{k,n} = \int_0^1 x^k (1-x)^n dx.$$ By integration by parts we have: $$I_{k,n} = \frac{n}{k+1} I_{k+1, n-1}. $$ Now we can iterate this to get $$ I_{k,n} = \frac{n}{k+1} I_{k+1,n-1} = \frac{n}{k+1} \frac{n-1}{k+2} I_{k+2, n-2} = \ldots = \frac{n!}{(k+1)(k+2) \ldots (k+n)} I_{k+n,0}. (*)$$
We have $$I_{k+n,0} = \int_0^1 x^{k+n} dx = \frac{1}{k+n+1}.$$ Now it remains to write the fraction from $(*)$ as a binomial coefficient.