I'm following this proof from a book, but can't quite understand one of the steps. The proof in full is as such:
Suppose that, per the definition of linear independence that
$$\sum^n_{k = 1}c_ke^{a_kx} = 0$$
then, let $a_M$ be the biggest number in the set $\{a_1,\ldots,a_n\}$. Multiplying both sides of the above equality, we get
$$\sum^n_{k = 1}c_ke^{(a_k - a_M)x} = 0.$$
If $k \ne M$, then $a_k - a_m < 0$. By letting $ x\to+\infty$, we get $c_M = 0$. We can, then, eliminate the term $k = M$ from the given linear combination.
Finally, by successive applications of the same process, we get $c_k = 0$ for $k = 1, 2, \ldots, n$.
How can we know that $c_M = 0$ by letting $x$ tend to infinity? That's the only step I don't understand.
This is due to the fact that $\lim_{\rightarrow+\infty}e^{-x}=0$ by multiplyiing the equality by $e^{-a_M}x$ you obtain $c_M+\sum_{k\neq M}e^{(a_k-a_M)x}$, since $a_k-a_M<0$, $\lim_{x\rightarrow +\infty}e^{(a_k-a_M)x}=0$.