I'm learning about factorials and combinatorics in class, and this problem came up, but I don't know how to solve it. The teacher said that it would be an integer, but how can I show this? $$ \frac{\left ( mk \right )!}{k!^{m}} \in \mathbb{N} $$
Thanks in advance
Proceed by induction on $m$. Clearly, if $m=1$ you have $\frac{k!}{k!} = 1$ is an integer. Now, for the inductive step consider $$\frac{((m+1)k)!}{(k!)^{m+1}} = \frac{(mk)!}{(k!)^m} \frac{(mk+1)(mk+2) \cdots (mk+k)}{k!}$$
By hypothesis $\frac{(mk)!}{(k!)^m}$ is an integer, so if you prove that $$\frac{(mk+1)(mk+2) \cdots (mk+k)}{k!} $$ is an integer you are done.
But this is true because the product of $k$ consecutive numbers is divisible by $k!$.