I want to prove this theorem using Binomial theorem and I've got trouble in understanding 3rd step if anyone knows why please explain :) Prove that sum:
$\sum_{r=0}^{k}\binom{m}{r}\binom{n}{k-r}=\binom{m+n}{k}$
1st step:
$(1+y)^{m+n}=(1+y)^m(1+y)^n$
2nd step: we use the binomial theorem formula and evaluate that sum $\sum_{m+n}^{r=0}\binom{m+n}{r}y^r=\sum_{r=0}^{m}\binom{m}{r}y^r \sum_{r=0}^{n}\binom{n}{r}y^r$
3step: equating the coefficient of $y^k$
$\binom{m+n}{k}=\binom{m}{0}\binom{n}{k}+\binom{m}{1}\binom{n}{k-1}+...+\binom{m}{k}\binom{n}{k-k}$
Why and how is the 3rd step allowed? Thank you
If $c_0+c_1y+\cdots +c_{n+m}y^{n+m}=d_0+d_1y+\cdots +d_{n+m}y^{n+m}$ for all $y$ then $c_i=d_i$ for all $i$. This is a basic fact about polynomials (and comes from the fact that a non-zero polynomial has only finitely many zeros). This result allows you to equate the coefficients of like powers of $y$.