It seems true that $f(\overline{X}) = \overline{f(X)}$ for $f:A\rightarrow B$ and $X$ is any subset of $A$ if and only if $f$ is bijective.But I couldn't write it as a formal way like epsilon argument.It makes sense to me but the trouble I have is with the formal prove.
2026-02-23 01:07:07.1771808827
How to Prove The Complement Of The Domain Is Complement Of The Image If f Is Bijective
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