$(s → (p∧ ¬r))∧(p → (r ∨q))∧s$ and $p∧ ¬r ∧q$
I have to prove that these two are not logically equivalent.. without using the truth table
I am pretty sure I have to simplify the left hand side and I have started from
$a → b = ¬a ∨ b$, but can't get any further.
Consider the case s is false.
What becomes of the left hand side?
Compare with what happens to the right hand side.