For the metrics $d:\mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ defined as $d_{E}(x,y)=|x-y|$ and $$d(x,y)= \frac{|x-y|}{1+|x-y|} . $$ I want to prove this two metrics generate te same topology. By doing a little research I have two prove the following two things:
(1) For every $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and each $\epsilon > 0$ there is some $\delta > 0$ such we have the contention $B_{d}(x, \delta) \subseteq B_{d_{E}}(x, \epsilon)$.
(2) For every $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and each $\epsilon>0$ there is some $\delta >0$ such we have the contention $B_{d_{E}}(x, \delta) \subseteq B_{d}(x, \epsilon)$.
What I got so far, goes as follows: As
$$d(x,y)=\frac{|x-y|}{1+|x-y|} \leq |x-y|=d_{E}(x,y)$$.
So in order to prove (2), I take $x \in \mathbb{R}$, $\epsilon>0$ We have by the last inequality thath $d_{E}(x,y)< \epsilon$ implies $d(x,y)< \epsilon$. This way, choosing $\delta= \epsilon$ we got that if $y \in B_{d_{E}}(x, \delta)=B_{d_{E}}(x, \epsilon)$ this means that $d_{E}(x,y)< \delta=\epsilon$, then $d(x,y) < \epsilon$. Proving that $y \in B_{d}(x, \epsilon)$. This is $B_{d_{E}}(x, \delta) \subseteq B_{d}(x, \epsilon)$.
Is this part of my proof correct? Can anyone help me proving the first condition in order two show this two metrics generate same topology? I know this question has been asked and answered before but I didnt understand what they did so Im trying to formulate my own proof. Thanks
Your answer to 2) is correct. For 1) suppose $0<\epsilon<1$. Verify that $B_d(x,\delta) \subset B_E (x, \epsilon)$ if $0<\delta <\frac {\epsilon} {1+\epsilon}$. How did I arrive at this condition on $\delta$?: we want to choose $\delta$ such that $\frac {|y-x|} {1+|y-x|}<\delta$ implies $|y-x| <\epsilon$. In other words, we want $ {|y-x|}<(1+|y-x|)<\delta$ implies $|y-x| <\epsilon$ or $|y-x| < \frac {\delta} {1-\delta}$ implies $|y-x| <\epsilon$ . The obvious thing to do is to choose $\delta$ in such a way that $\frac {\delta} {1-\delta} <\epsilon$. Now you can rewrite this last inequality as $\delta < \frac {\epsilon} {1+\epsilon}$.
Finally, what happens if we started with $\epsilon \geq 1$? Note that $B_E(x,\epsilon)$ contains $B_E(x,\frac 1 2)$. If we find $\delta$ such that $B_d(x,\delta) \subset B_E(x,\frac 1 2)$ we would get $B_d(x,\delta) \subset B_E(x,\epsilon)$. But this has already been done (jusr replace $\epsilon$ by $\frac 1 2$ in above argument).