I am trying to prove the following:
$x^x < (1-x)^{1-x}$ for $x \in (0,\frac{1}{2})$
(or take logs of both sides to make it nicer if you want)
I can draw pictures to convince myself this is true, but I'm wondering how to structure a formal argument. It feels that the second derivative being strictly decreasing in $x$ should help, but I can't quite piece together an argument.
Any ideas would be gratefully received!!
Let $f(x)=(1-x)\ln(1-x)-x\ln{x}.$
Thus, since $$f''(x)=\frac{1}{1-x}-\frac{1}{x}=\frac{2x-1}{x(1-x)}<0,$$ $$f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=0$$ and $$\lim_{x\rightarrow0^+}f(x)=0,$$ we obtain $$f(x)>0$$ or $$x^x<(1-x)^{1-x}.$$