A person speaks the truth 80 percent of the time. A 6 sided dice is tossed. He reports there is a 6. What is the probability there is actually a 6? (Use Bayes' theorem)
I know that the answer according to Bayes' theorem will be (4/5)(1/6)/((4/5)(1/6)+(1/5)*(5/6))=4/9=44.4%
ie. The probability that he is lying is more than him telling the truth.
However I am confused as to the fact that the same result will come if we had asked about the other cases (1,2,3,4,5). This will be true every time (?).
So if the person has a higher probability of lying each time how come he speaks the truth 80 percent not the time?
Thank you
Imagine performing the experiment "roll the die, and ask this person if the die is a $6$" a total of $600$ times. Then the average result (obviously there will be random fluctuation) is that:
Out of $600$ trials, this person has told the truth $480$ times, which is $80\%$.
However, if you only look at the trials in which the person said "the die landed $6$", then there will be $80$ such trials in which the person is telling the truth, but $100$ trials in which the person is lying. That's the $44.4\%$ probability you're getting. Even though this person is mostly truthful, they get many more opportunities to lie about the die being a $6$ than they do to tell the truth, so most such statements end up lies.
Imagine that every day you ask this person, "Did you win the lottery today?" They will lie and say yes about $20\%$ of the time, and maybe one in a million times, they will tell the truth and say yes. Even though this person is mostly truthful, if they tell you "Yes, I won the lottery", you can be almost certain they're lying. That's because winning the lottery is much much more unlikely than the $20\%$ chance of a lie.
The die rolling example is less extreme but similar.