I have the following question about this lemma,
Where $A,B\in\mathbb{F}$. I tried to prove that $\mbox{Norm}_{R/F}(\alpha-\beta\theta)=f^{hom}(\alpha,\beta))$, but I don't see, why this is correct. Any hint will be appreciated. Just to be certain, in this case $\mbox{Norm}_{R/\mathbb{F}}$ is the norm in the finite field and $\mbox{hom}$ is the homomorphism?
Thanks!
This is from Andrew Shallue's papers https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/0139/0ce5986e93cc6ffa35050566760c96640c1a.pdf