Question
Let $n = m!$. Which of the following is TRUE?
$a)m = \Theta (\frac{\log n}{\log \log n})$
$b)m = \Omega (\frac{\log n}{\log \log n})$ but not $m = O(\frac{\log n}{\log \log n})$
$c)m = \Theta (\log^2 n)$ $m = \Omega (\log^2 n)$ but not $m = Ο( (\log^2 n)$
$d)m = \Theta (\log^{1.5} n)$
Let me Clear that this is not a homework question, i have learnt asymptotic growth and trying to solve some good question.During Practicing, i found this beautiful question but i am stuck at one point and unable to move on to conclude the answer.
My approach
Given $n = m!$
$\Rightarrow \log n=(\log m!)=m \log m$
$\Rightarrow m=\frac{\log n }{\log m}$
I am stuck how to move forward .What value should i give to $\log m$?
Please help
The first issue with what you wrote is that you write an equality instead of an asymptotic equivalence: you cannot write $\log m! = m\log m$. You can write $$\log m! \operatorname*{\sim}_{m\to\infty} m\log m$$, which is equivalent to writing $\log m! = m\log m + o(m\log m)$; or, more precise, $$ \ln m! = m\ln m - m + O(\log m) $$ (this is Stirling's approximation).
Now, let us start from there. Since $n=m!$, we have $$ \log n = m\log m +o(m\log m) \tag{1} $$ by the above. Let us write $m = f(n)\log n$ for some $f>0$ we are trying to figure out (asymptotically). (1) becomes $$ \log n = f(n)\log n\log f(n) + f(n)\log n\log \log n +o(f(n)\log n\log (f(n)\log n)) $$ or equivalently $$ 1 = f(n)\log f(n) + f(n)\log \log n +o(f(n)\log (f(n)\log n)) \tag{2} $$ From this, it is clear that we must have $f(n)=o(1)$ (as otherwise $f(n)\log \log n$ is unbounded). That allows us to simplify (2) as $$ 1 = o(1) + f(n)\log \log n +o(f(n)\log\log n) \tag{3} $$ which implies (for the equality to hold) that we must have $f(n)\log \log n = 1+o(1)$, and thus $$f(n) \operatorname*{\sim}_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{\log\log n}\,.$$
Putting it all together, $$ \boxed{m \operatorname*{\sim}_{n\to\infty} \frac{\log n}{\log\log n}\,.} $$