Consider the following pushout diagram in the category $\textbf {Top}$ $:$
$$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} A @>{\iota}>{\text {inclusion}}> B\\ @VVV @VV{}V\\ Y @>{f}>{}> X\end{CD}$$
$\textbf {Question}$ $:$ Is it true that the map $f : Y \longrightarrow X$ is also an inclusion? If so, how do I argue that?
Here a proof that if $\iota$ is injective, then $f$ is injective as well. A direct computation, shows that $X\cong (Y\amalg B)/{\sim}$ where $\sim$ is the equivalence relation generated by: $$(0,\alpha(a))\sim(1,\iota(a))$$ for $a\in A$, where $\alpha:A\to Y$ and $Y\amalg B=(\{0\}\times Y)\cup(\{1\}\times B)$. Consequently, this reduces to show that for every $y,y'\in Y$ $$(0,y)\sim(0,y')\implies y=y'$$ Assume $(0,y)\sim(0,y')$. If $y$ doesn't belong to the image of $\alpha$, then clearly $y=y'$. Otherwise, there exists $n\in\Bbb N$ and $a_i\in A$ for $0\leq i\leq n$ such that $y=\alpha(a_0)$, $y'=\alpha(a_n)$ and $(1,\iota(a_{2k}))=(1,\iota(a_{2k+1}))$, $(0,\alpha(a_{2k-1}))=(0,\alpha(a_{2k}))$ for every $k$, that's: $$(0,\alpha(a_0))\sim(1,\iota(a_0))=(1,\iota(a_1))\sim(0,\alpha(a_1))=(0,\alpha(a_2))\sim\cdots\sim(0,\alpha(a_n))$$ Then $a_{2k}=a_{2k+1}$ for every $k$, hence $\alpha(a_{2k})=\alpha(a_{2k+1})$ and $\alpha(a_{2k-1})=\alpha(a_{2k})$, from which $y=\alpha(a_0)=\alpha(a_n)=y'$.