Let $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2} =1$ be an ellipse. Let $A = (x_0,y_0)$ be a point outside of an ellipse. Draw two lines that touch an ellipse and denote two tangent points by $D_1 = (x_1,y_1),D_2 = (x_2,y_2)$. My question is that if I draw a line passing through $A$ and the middle point of $D_1$ and $D_2$ i.e., $(\frac{x_1+x_2}{2},\frac{y_1+y_2}{2})$ then it passes the origin.
Here's the image I found on google. I think it's correct but I don't know how to prove this. I already know the equation of a line passing $D_1$ and $D_2$ is $\frac{xx_0}{a^2}+\frac{yy_0}{b^2} =1$. So what I need to show is $$\frac{y_0}{x_0}\left(\frac{x_1+x_2}{2}\right) = \frac{y_1+y_2}{2}$$ But I don't know how to get further. How can I do this? Is there any simple geometric proof of this?

Let's start with the equation of the line $D_1D_2$, i.e.
$${xx_0\over a^2}+{yy_0\over b^2}=1$$
$D_1(x_1,y_1)$ and $D_2(x_2,y_2)$ are the intersection points of that line and the ellipse. So they satisfy also the equation of the ellipse.
Substitution and multiplication by $y_0^2/b^2$ gives us that $x_i/a$ are the two solutions of the quadratic
$$X^2\left({y_0^2\over b^2}+{x_0^2\over a^2}\right)-2X{x_0\over a}+1-{y_0^2\over b^2}=0$$
and we deduce from that
$${x_1+x_2\over 2}={x_0\over {x_0^2\over a^2}+{y_0^2\over b^2}}$$
Similarly substitution and multiplication by $x_0^2/a^2$ gives us that $y_i/b$ are the two solutions of the quadratic
$$Y^2\left({x_0^2\over a^2}+{y_0^2\over b^2}\right)-2Y{y_0\over b}+1-{x_0^2\over a^2}=0$$
and thus
$${y_1+y_2\over 2}={y_0\over {y_0^2\over b^2}+{x_0^2\over a^2}}$$
The line passing through the origin and the middlepoint of $D_1D_2$ has the following equation $x_0y-y_0x=0$ and it passes through $M(x_0,y_0)$