I have a very simple question. The Calculus book I am using provides this question (along with a solution) as an exercise in Stokes' theorem.
First of all, I have no idea why they have a picture of a triangular domain. I'll let that one slide as a typo. But why is it that the force vector $\vec F$ is simply $\langle 0, 0, 1 \rangle$? Is that another mistake, or is there just something I'm not seeing? If so, would somebody mind explaining?
Here is the question/solution given by the book:

(Edited)
I think something went wrong here in your book; maybe two different exercices were mixed up.
There is no need to introduce the surface $S_1$ at all.
We are given a flow field ${\bf v}$ that possesses a vector potential ${\bf A}$: $${\bf v}={\rm curl}({\bf A})\ .$$
By Stokes' theorem the flow of ${\bf v}$ through $S$ can then be related to ${\bf A}$ as follows:
$$\int_S {\bf v}\cdot{\bf n}\ {\rm d}\omega =\int_S{\rm curl}({\bf A})\cdot{\bf n}\ {\rm d}\omega=\int_{\partial S}{\bf A}\cdot d{\bf x}=25\ .$$