This question may sound too stupid. But I am quite confused by the Binomial theorem
As per my understanding, let us consider
$(x+y)^4$ without the coefficients.
$(x+y)^4 = x^4 + x^3y + x^2y^2 + xy^3 + y^4$
Now if we take the term $x^2y^2$ as per the binomial theorem the coefficient would be 6. because ${4 \choose 2}$ gives the answer to be 6. But why do we take only $y$ term into consideration during coefficient calculation but now x term.
I feel it should be $4 \choose 2$$4 \choose 2$ both multiplied because we need to select two $x$ and two $y$. In that case the coefficient would be 36. But according to binomial theorem it is 6. Where I am going wrong?
kindly explain me
Note that$$(x+y)^4=(x+y)\times(x+y)\times(x+y)\times(x+y).$$The coefficient of $xy$ is the number of $x^2y^2$'s that we get when we expand this product. And there are as many ways of getting a $x^2y^2$ as there are ways of picking two of the factors and using its $x$ and using the $y$ from the remaining two factors. And in how many ways can we do that? In $\binom42=6$ ways.