Quick doubt on this function domain

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$$f(x) = \frac{e^{1-\ln(x-x^2)}}{\ln(1 - e^{x-x^2})}$$

I was solving this, and I found the domain is the emptyset.

Yet, then I checked with Mathematica and it returned me a different domain. When I tried to check the functions separately, it said that the domain of the numerator is $x < 0$ union $0 < x < 1$ union $x > 1$.

I think that this is beacuse it sees

$$e^{1-\ln(x-x^2)} = e\cdot e^{-\ln(x-x^2)} = \frac{e}{x-x^2}$$

But isn't this wrong?? The last property only holds when the argument of the logarithm is positive, isn't it?

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Check the conditions for the function definition. If you consider the arguments of the logarithmic functions in the numerator and denominator:

Numerator:

$\ln(x - x^2)$ requires $x - x^2 > 0$

Solving $x - x^2 > 0$ we get $x(1 - x) > 0$.

The solutions for $x(1 - x) = 0$ are $x = 0$ and $x = 1$, therefore the inequality $x - x^2 > 0$ holds when $0 < x < 1$.

Denominator:

The exponential function $e^{x-x^2}$ is defined for all real $x$, meaning there are no restrictions coming from here.

However, $1 - e^{x-x^2} > 0$. So we solve for $e^{x-x^2} < 1$. The expoential function is equal to 1 when $x-x^2 = 0$ and less then 1 when $x-x^2 < 0$.

Conclusion:

There is no value or range of $x$ where $x-x^2 < 0$ and $0 < x < 1$, so the function $f(x)$ indeed has no domain where it is defined, as no value of $x$ can satisfy the numerator and denominator conditions simulteneously.