random experiment with two different functions on unit interval

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Let $X=[0,1]$, and functions $f(x)=x$, $g(x)=2x$ mod $1$, and the probability of chosing $f,g$: $\mu(f)=\mu(g)=\frac{1}{2}$. Now if $x$ is the starting point, then what will be a general expression of state after $n$ iteration?

One of my friends says it will be $X_n=(\eta_1+\eta_2+\dots+\eta_n)x$ mod $1$, where $\eta_i$ are i.i.d taking values $0,1$but I don't understand his explanations.

This is some random experiment I understand but how the process will go on, I can not visualize. Each step of the random experiment one of the above function will play their role and with probability fifty-fifty, right? So If I consider a diagram according to the experiment or iteration, I will get some curve also? Thanks for describing me mathematically.

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Your friend is wrong, but has the right idea. Let $\eta_j = 1$ if $g$ is picked at the $j$th iteration, and $0$ otherwise. (I.e. $\eta_j$ is the indicator variable.) Then

$$X_j = 2^{\eta_j} X_{j-1} \pmod 1$$

and so

$$X_n = 2^{\eta_n} 2^{\eta_{n-1}} \cdots 2^{\eta_2} 2^{\eta_1} X_0 = 2^{(\eta_n + \cdots + \eta_2 + \eta_1)} X_0 \pmod 1$$

As for visualization... If $f$ is picked then $X$ didn't change, but if $g$ is picked then $X$ doubles, and then "wraps around" $\pmod 1$ if the doubled value $> 1$. If you plot successive $X_n$ there are some flat stretches ($f$ being chosen) then some jumps which may look hard to comprehend.

For some starting values the series is easily described. E.g. starting at $X_0=1/2$ or indeed any $2^{-k}$ you keep doubling (whenever $g$ is chosen) until getting stuck at $1=0$. Alternatively starting at $X_0 = 1/3$ you just toggle between $1/3$ and $2/3$ (whenever $g$ is chosen). Somewhat similar things happen for a rational $X_0$ whose denominator is not a power of $2$ (and in particular the series eventually repeats). But for an irrational $X_0$ the series will go all over the place and will never repeat, and (I am not an expert on this last point) I believe in some technical sense may become "uniform" over the $(0,1)$ interval...?