Is the set of rationals a subset of the irrationals? I always assumed it was, but given that irrationals are defined to be numbers that have an infinite, non-repeating decimal expansion, there cannot possibly exist a number in both sets?
2026-03-30 03:52:36.1774842756
Real number system
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That's not the definition of irrational numbers.
A rational real number is a number that can be written as the ratio of two integers, $\displaystyle \frac{p}{q}$.
An irrational real number is a real number that is not rational.
It turns out that this will imply an irrational number has a decimal expansion which is not a repeated sequence of digits. Consequently, every rational real number that does have an infinite decimal expansion does consist of a repeated pattern, for example $\displaystyle \frac{1}{7} = 0.142857142857...$
Given these new definitions of rational and irrational, it's a good exercise to prove this!