According to resources from the internet, if Riemann Hypothesis is true, then $$\frac1{\zeta (z)}=\sum^\infty_{n=1}\frac{\mu (n)}{n^z}$$ converges for $1/2<\sigma$.
However, I cannot find any continuation of it for $0\le \sigma <1/2$.
($\sigma$ is the real part of the argument $z$)
Does the continuation require assuming RH to be true?
I believe such continuation exists, as meromorphic continuation is often possible.
Thanks in advance.
What do you mean with “provide”? The $\zeta$ function is meromorphic and therefore if $Z=\{\text{zeros of }\zeta\}$, then $\frac1\zeta\colon\mathbb{C}\setminus(Z\cup\{1\})\longrightarrow\mathbb C$ is a meromorphic function (which can be extended to $\mathbb{C}\setminus Z$ as a meromorphic function). So, yes, it has a continuation. This doesn't depend upon the Riemann hyphotesis.