It seems quite obvious that, when given a simplex, its set of vertices is uniquely determined by the simplex. The formal formulation of this intuition is as follows:
Suppose that the points $\{v_0,v_1,\dots,v_k\}$ and $\{w_0,w_1,\dots,w_l\}$ are affinely independent sets of points of $\mathbb{R}^n$. If the $k$-simplex $\sigma=[v_0,\dots,v_k]$ and the $l$-simplex $\tau=[w_0,\dots, w_l]$ are equal, then $k=l$ and $\{v_0,v_1,\dots,v_k\}=\{w_0,w_1,\dots,w_l\}$.
We clearly have $k=l$ because an $m$-simplex is homeomorphic to the closed ball of dimension $m$ and no two closed ball of different dimensions are homeomorphic to each other. But I cannot prove that $\{v_0,v_1,\dots,v_k\}=\{w_0,w_1,\dots,w_l\}$.
I think I must be overlooking something very obvious... Can anyone help me? Thanks in advance.
Trickier than I expected. Suppose that $\{v_0,\dots,v_k\}$ does not equal $\{w_0,\dots,w_k\}$. Then without loss of generality we can assume $v_0 = \Sigma r_i w_i$ where multiple $r_i$ are nonzero. Again, without loss of generality assume that these are $r_0,r_1$. Then there is a function $(-\epsilon, \epsilon) \rightarrow \sigma$ defined by $t \rightarrow (r_0 +t)w_0 + (r_1-t)w_1 + r_2 w_2 +\dots + r_k w_k$. Such a function cannot exist because at $t=0$ this passes through $v_0$, and no such line segment passes through $v_0$ that is also contained in $\sigma$ because such a thing would necessarily contain points that when written as a sum of the $v_i$ would have negative coefficients.