It is well known fact that over the finite field $\mathbb{Z}_p$ of order $p$, there exists irreducible polynomial of every degree.
I came to following natural question from this:
Question: Given any $n\geq 2$ and any polynomial $f(x)=x^n+a_1x^{n-1} + \cdots + a_n$ over $\mathbb{Z}$, there always exists a prime $p$ such that $f(x)$ is reducible over $\mathbb{Z}_p$.
For example, consider $x^2+a$ with $a\in\mathbb{Z}$. Then for infinitely many prime $p$, this polynomial is reducible and for infinitely many primes, it is irreducible also.
Given a polynomial $f=x^{n}+a_{1}x^{n-1}+\cdots+a_{n}\in\mathbb{Z}[X]$, pick $a\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $f(a)\neq\pm 1$. Consider the prime factorization $$f(a)=\pm p_{1}^{e_{1}}\cdots p_{m}^{e_{m}}.$$
Then $f(a)\equiv 0$ mod $p_{j}$ for $j\in\{1,\ldots,m\}$. Hence in all these $\mathbb{Z}_{p_{j}}$, the polynomial $f$ is reducible, since it has $a$ mod $p_{j}$ as a root.