My question refers to an answer given to a former thread of mine:
Linear Morphism between Schemes
Brandon wrote:
A regular function is the same thing as a map to $\mathbb A^1_{\mathbb Z}$, so $\eta(x)$ really does live on $\mathbb A^1_{\mathbb Z}$. It's good to think about why this should be.
If we start with a scheme $U$ and we call it's global sections $\mathcal{O}_U(U)$ "regular functions".
But I don't see how these regular functions give rise for morphisms to $\mathbb A^1_{\mathbb Z}$?
A naive approach would be to take a $η \in \mathcal{O}_U(U)$ which provides following map: $η:U→∐_{x∈U}\kappa(x),x↦κ(x)=\mathcal{O}_{U,x}/p_x$ where $p_x$ is the prime ideal of an affine neighbourhood of $x \in U$.
But how does it map to $\mathbb A^1_{\mathbb Z}$? Does anybody has an idea what Brandon had here in mind?
The affine line $\mathbb{A}^1_{\mathbb{Z}}=\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{Z}[T]$ represents the functor $X\mapsto \mathcal{O}_X(X)$ on the category of schemes: $$ \operatorname{Hom}_{\operatorname{Sch}}(X,\operatorname{Spec}\mathbb{Z}[T])=\operatorname{Hom}_{\operatorname{Rings}}(\mathbb{Z}[T],\mathcal{O}_X(X))=\mathcal{O}_X(X), $$ where the last identification is via evaluation at $T$.