I have a question about the relation between Fourier and Laplace transforms.
I have seen in some places that the transfer functions in the Laplace space are represented as $G(s)$ where $s$ is the variable in the frequency domain (Laplace). In other places I have seen that the transfer functions are represented as $G(iw)$ where $w$ is the frequency in the Fourier space and $i$ the imaginary unit.
I wonder how this connection applies because in some places it is supposed that the relation between both frequencies is $s=\sigma+iw$. But what is $\sigma$ then and why is it sometimes ignored?
If the relationship $s=iw$ would hold to be true, that means that we can Laplace transform by multiplying data times $i$ and doing the FFT?
It is convenient to start with the complex Laplace transform.
Fourier transform \begin{eqnarray*} \tilde{f}(\omega ) &=&\int_{-\infty }^{+\infty }dt\exp [i\omega t]f(t) \\ f(t) &=&\frac{1}{2\pi }\int_{-\infty }^{+\infty }d\omega \exp [-i\omega t]% \tilde{f}(\omega ) \end{eqnarray*} Complex Laplace transform $$ \hat{f}(z)=\int_{0}^{+\infty }dt\exp [izt]f(t),\;{Im}z>0 $$ With $\theta (t)$ the step function $$ \hat{f}(z)=\int_{-\infty }^{+\infty }dt\theta (t)\exp [izt]f(t) $$ Let $z=\omega +ia$, $a>0$. Then $$ \hat{f}(\omega +ia)=\int_{-\infty }^{+\infty }dt\exp [i\omega t]\theta (t)\exp [-at]f(t) $$ so $\hat{f}(\omega +ia)$ is the Fourier transform of $\theta (t)\exp [-at]f(t)$ and $$ \theta (t)\exp [-at]f(t)=\frac{1}{2\pi }\int_{-\infty }^{+\infty }d\omega \exp [-i\omega t]\hat{f}(\omega +ia) $$ From this you see that the Laplace transform is essentially equivalent to the Fourier transform of the product of the step function and $f(t)$.