Define $R(x_1, x_2) := \lim\limits_{p \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{p} \mathbb{P}(1-F_1(X_1)\leq px_1, 1-F_2(X_2)\leq px_2 )$ for $x_1\geq 0$, $x_2 \geq 0$, where $X_1$ and $X_2$ are random variables, not necessary independent, and $F_1$ and $F_2$ are their marginal distribution functions.
Note that $1-F_i(X_i)$ itself has an uniform distribution on $[0,1]$ .
For $t>0$, the relation $R(tx_1,tx_2) = tR(x_1,x_2)$ holds. Why is this true?
$\frac1p\mathbb P(1-F_1(X_1)\leq ptx_1,1-F_2(X_2)\leq ptx_2)=t\frac1{pt}\mathbb P(1-F_1(X_1)\leq ptx_1,1-F_2(X_2)\leq ptx_2)$
Now on both sides let $p\to0$ (so that also $pt\to0$).
Then you find: $R(tx_1,tx_2)=tR(x_1,x_2)$ as a result.