I am curious if the remainder of u+v is the same as the sum of the two integers separately if they are the same how would one go about proving this
Remainders of two integers when divided by another integer n
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Close. It's possible for the remainders when added together could be larger than $n$. (Ex: if we use the notation $a\% n$ to mean the remainder when $a$ is divided by $n$ then, $13\%7 = 6$ and $12\%7 = 5$ and $6+5 =11$ while $(13+12)\%7= 25\%7 = 4$.)
However the remainder of the sum of the remainders is the same as the remainder of the sum. (Ex: $13\%7 = 6$ and $12\%7 =5$ and $6+5=11$ and $11\%7 = 4$. Meanwhile $(13+12) =25$ and $25\%7 = 4$)
Or maybe a clearer way to word it is:
$u+v$ and the sum of the remainder of $u$ and the remainder of $v$, both have the same remainder.
EDIT: New proof:
If $u\%n = h$ then there is an integer $a$ so that $u=an + h$ and $0 \le h < n$. And if $v\&n = j$ then there is a $b$ so that $v = bn + j$ and $0 \le j < n$. So $h + j < 2n$.
Case 1: $h+j < n$. Then $(h+j)$ is its own remainder.
Then $u+v = (an + h) + (bn + j) = (a+b)n + (h+j)$ and the remainder of $u+v$ is $h + j$.
Case 2: $n\le h + j < 2n$. Then there is a $k$ so that $h+j = n + k$ and $k$ is the remainder.
Then $u+v = (an + h) + (bn + j) = (a+b)n + (h+j) = (a+b)n + n + k = (a+b+1)n + k$. And the remainder for $u+v$ is $k$, the same remainder for $h+j$.
===old proof much harder ====
Proof: Suppose $u \% n = k$. Then means there is an integer $a$ so that $u = an + k$. And $v\%n = j$ means there is an integer $b$ so that $v = bn + j$. And $(u + v)\% n = h$ means there is an integer $c$ so that $u+v = cn + h$.
We want to prove that $(j+k)\% n = h$.
We do that by:
$u= an+k$ and $v= bn + j$ so $u+v = (an+bn) + (k+j) = (a+b)n + (k+j)$. But $u+v = cn + h$. So hat means $cn + h = (a+b)n + (k+j)$.
Which means $(k + j) = (cn+ h) - (a+b)n = (c-a+b)n + h$. So the remainder of $k+j$ is $h$ and the remainder of $u+v$ is $h$.
We have proven it.
HINT
In general, it is not true as stated -- for example, $u=v=1$ and $n=2$, then $u \pmod{2} = v \pmod{2} = 1$ but $(u+v) \mod{2} = 0 \ne 2$. But notice that something else is true: $$ (u+v) \pmod{n} \equiv [u \pmod{n} + v \pmod{n}] \pmod{n} $$ as in our case $2 \pmod{2} \equiv 0$.
The proof would be in the following style. Let $u = an+b,v=cn+d$ with $0 \le d,b < n$. Can you now do arithmetic?