Consider a function such that it takes in polynomial function and creates an array of its outputs and then using that array creates another new array by calculating the absolute difference between the first $2$ values and keeps doing this until it reaches an array full of zeros.
This is much easier to show you by example.
For example take $F(x)= x^2$, the first array would be
$1,4,9,16,25,36,49,64,81$ and so on, the second would be
$3,5,7,9,11,13,15,17,19$ ( the difference between the first value and the second one)
but the third one is where it gets interesting as if we continue the pattern we would get an array filled with only $2$'s and after that it would only be zeros.
Lets do another example, $F(x)=x^3$
$1,8,27,64,125,216,343$
$7,19,37,61,91,\dotsc$ but here is the interesting part if we continue this
$12,18,24,30,\dotsc$ and once more then we get
$6,6,6,6,6,\dotsc$ after that it would just be an array of zeros
There are $2$ main observation that I made about this
Firstly, the value that is begin repeated indefinitely is equals to the factorial of the functions power. Meaning that for $F(x)=x^2$ the value being repeated is $2!$. For $F(x)=x^3$ , it's $3! $ and this is true for all polynomials (I tried it up to $x^7$, after that it got too messy)
Secondly, the value that is repeated always occurs on the $n$th iteration of the function. Meaning that for $F(x)=x^2$, we have to go through the processes $2$ times before we find the value. For $F(x)=x^3$, we have to go through it $3$ times before getting the value.
Is there any way to prove this and does this mean anything at all?
Here's a fact:
(I'll prove this fact below).
Applying this fact together with an induction argument, it follows that after repeating the process $n$ times, one obtains a polynomial of degree zero whose leading term is $$a \, n \, (n-1) \ldots (2) (1) = a \, n! $$ which is just a constant having that value.
So if the original leading coefficient $a$ is equal to $1$, as it is in the specific cases $F(x)=x^n$ that you ask about, repeating the difference process $n$ times yields a constant sequence of $n!$ as you ask.
Here's a proof of the fact by applying induction (the base case $n=1$ is easy).
Assuming the induction hypothesis for polynomials of degree $\le n-1$, suppose that $$p(x) = a \, x^n + q(x) $$ where $q(x)$ is a polynomial of degree $\le n-1$.
We have $$p(x+1)-p(x) = a \, (x+1)^n - a \, x^n + \underbrace{(q(x+1)-q(x))}_{r(x)} $$ and $r(x)$ is a polynomial of degree $\le n-2$ by induction. Thus $$p(x+1)-p(x) = a \, (x^n + n \, x^{n-1} + s(x)) - a\, x^n + r(x) $$ where $s(x)$ is also a polynomial of degree $\le n-2$ (by application of the binomial theorem). Therefore $$p(x+1)-p(x) = a \, n \, x^{n-1} + (a \, s(x)+r(x)) $$ which is a polynomial of degree $n-1$ with leading term as required.