This is probably a stupid question. The book in the title defines
Definition 2.1. A Riemannian metric on a differentiable manifold $M$ is a correspondence which associates to each point $p$ of $M$ an inner product $\left\langle \cdot,\cdot \right\rangle_p$ (that is symmetric, bilinear, positive definite form) on the tangent space $T_p M$, which varies differentiably in the following sense: If $x : U \subset \mathbb{R}^n \to M$ is a system of coordinates around $p$, with $x(x_1,\ldots,x_n) = q \in x(U)$ and $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}(q) = dx_q (0,\ldots,1,\ldots,0)$, then $\left\langle \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}(q),\frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}(q)\right\rangle_q = g_{ij}(x_1,\ldots,x_n)$ is a differentiable function in $U$
The first issue is the exact meaning of $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i} (q) = dx_q (0,\ldots,1,\ldots, 0) $$
In general the differential of a map is the Jacobian of the coordinate transformation. I.e. if $\varphi$ is a differentiable map between two differentiable manifolds then it's differential is a linear map between the two tangent spaces of such manifolds. This map is characterized by the jacobian matrix of the coordinate transformation.
I would assume that $d x_q$ then is simply the velocity vector at $q$, does the notation $dx_q(0,\ldots,1,\ldots 0)$ means simply the $i-th$ row or column of this matrix?
The second issue...
It is my understanding that $\left\langle \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}(q),\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}(q)\right\rangle_q$ is an inner product on the tangent space $T_q M$. Two generic elements $X,Y \in T_q M$ generic element of such space would be given by
$$ \begin{array}{l} X = \sum_{i=1}^n a_i(q) \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i} \\ Y = \sum_{i=1}^n b_i(q) \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i} \end{array} $$
However in a more simple setting (like regular surfaces) the Riemannian metric degenerates simply in the first fundamental form, however I do struggle to put the bits of the definition together to show this.
The reason of this question is that I'd like to assume I have some $X,Y \in T_p M$ how do I use the definition of Riemannian metric to compute the dot product?
Fellow student of a Riemannian Geometry course here.
First off, Do Carmo is a poor textbook for a first introduction. I'd recommend reading another more accessible and thorough textbook first.
The differential of a map in differential geometry (of which Riemannian Geometry is a subgeometry) is a derived map on the tangent vectors. Intuitively, you can define it as follows. Let $\gamma$ be a curve in $M$ with velocity vector $\vec{v}$ at $m$, and let $f: M \to N$ be a smooth map, then the differential of $f$ is the smooth map which maps $\vec{v}$ to the velocity vector of $f \circ \gamma$ at $f(m)$.
If the map is a diffeomorphism (charts are), the differential will map a base of the tangent space $T_m M$ to a basis of the tangent space at $T_{f(m)} N$.
So $d \mathbf{x}_q$ is a map from the tangent space of $\mathbb{R}^n$ at $x^{-1}(q)$ (which is just $\mathbb{R}^n$ again), to the tangent space of $M$ at $q$. You're mapping one of the canonical base vectors $(0, \ldots, 1, \ldots, 0)$ to a corresponding tangent vector in your manifold. As you pointed out, there is a close relation to the Jacobian; the Jacobian is a matrix, and therefore it maps vectors to vectors.
Your interpretation as an inner product is correct. I do not understand what you mean by the first fundamental form, however. Do you mean to use the standard Euclidian product defined on $\mathbb{R}^3$ to define a Riemannian metric on a regular space in $\mathbb{R}^3$?