The original riesz representation theorem states
Let $X$ be locally compact hausdorff space. Then for any nonnegative functional $\Lambda$ on $C_c(X)$, there is a unique regular borel measure $\mu$ on $X$ such that $$\Lambda(f)=\int f\mu(dx)$$ for all $f\in C_c(X)$.
Suppose there is a measured space $(\Omega,\mathcal{A},P)$. I define the space of measurable functions $L^0(P)$ is the equivalence class of measurable functions, which are $P$-a.s. equal. This is a vector space and often used in mathematical finance. If we suppose that $\Omega$ is finite, then we identify $L^0$ with $\mathbb{R}^n$ (for $Y\in L^0$, $Y(\omega_i):=y_i)$.
I was able to prove that a given functional $\Gamma$ on $L^0$ is nonnegative. Can I use the Riesz-Representation theorem to conclude that $$\Gamma(Y)=\int Y R(dw)$$ for a measure $R$?
The problem is the hyptothesis about $C_c(X)$. My notes say there is such a measure, but I'm not sure, why I can apply Riesz.
If $\Omega$ is finite then $\Gamma$ is essentially a row vector with positive entries and "integration against the measure $R$" reduces to a dot product against this vector.