Rigorously prove: If $A\setminus B = A$, then $A \cap B = \emptyset$.
Logically it makes sense i.e. since if $A\setminus B$ is equal to $A$, then $B$ must be the empty set hence $A \cap B$ must be equal to the empty set since anything intersected with the empty set is the empty set.
My main question is how I can go about this to prove it formally, i.e 'mathematically/rigorously'
My attempt:
$\left(A \setminus B \right) \subseteq A$ (1)
$A$ is a subset of $A$ hence also a subset of $\left(A \setminus B \right)$
So:
$A \subseteq \left(A \setminus B \right)$ (2)
Combining (1) and (2) we are allowed to conclude that:
$ \left(A \setminus B \right) = A$
Hence since $ \left(A \setminus B \right) = A$, then $B = \emptyset$ then rtp that $A \cap B = \emptyset$
$A \cap B$
$(x \in A \land x \in B)$
$(x \in A \land x \in \emptyset)$
$x \in \emptyset$
Thanks in Advance
Nowhere we reach the conclusion that $B=\varnothing$.
This is a way to do it:
Assume that $x\in A\cap B$.
Then $x\in A=A\setminus B$ and $x\in B$.
Then $x\notin B$ and $x\in B$ so a contradiction is found.
We conclude that the assumption $x\in A\cap B$ is false, and this for every $x$.
That means exactly that $A\cap B$ is empty.