The question is If I roll 6 fair 6 sided dice, what is the probability that the max is equal to 5?
I have two attempted solutions and cannot determine which is correct and the flaw in the other.
Attempt 1: The max is less than or equal 5 if there are no 6s rolled. So probability of that is $P_5=\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^6$ since each roll is allowed to be anything except 6. The max is less than or equal to 4 if there are no 5s or 6s rolled which has probability $P_4=\left(\frac{4}{6}\right)^6$. So the max equals 5 with probability $P_5-P_4=\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^6-\left(\frac{4}{6}\right)^6\approx .25$
Attempt 2: The max equals 5 if there are no 6s and at least one 5. So each roll has only 5 choices. Except one roll has one choice; it must be a 5. So the probability that max equals 5 is $\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^5\times \frac{1}{6}\times 6\approx .40$ The first part makes sure that 5 of them have no 6, the second piece makes sure that at least one is a 5, and the last piece accounts for the fact that there are 6 different places the 5 can occur.
In full disclosure, I have always been a little shoddy with combinatorics. So I am pretty sure, the 2nd attempt is the incorrect one. I would appreciate it though if your explanation used as much combinatorics lingo as possible to help me improve. Thanks!
Both of your attempts are wrong. We have to use something called conditional probabilty. As you said, there is a $(\frac{5}{6})^6$ probability that there is no $6$. But from here we have to look at the probability that there is a $5$ under the assumption that there is no $6$. This probability is given by $1-(\frac{4}{5})^6$. Together we have $(\frac{5}{6})^6\times (1-(\frac{4}{5})^6)=0.25$
This is exactly the result you got in your first attempt, but only by pure chance.