The multiplicative group of a local field $K$ with valuation ring $\mathcal{O}$ and residue class field of $\overline{K}$ of degree $q=p^f$ splits as
$K=\langle \pi\rangle\times \mu_{q-1}\times U^{(1)}$,
where $\mu_{q-1}$ are the $q-1$ roots of unity in $\mathcal{O}$, $\pi$ a uniformizer and $U^{(1)}$ the principal units.
I was wondering what we can say about the number of roots of unity in $K$? This boils down to finding the possible roots of unity contained in $U^{(1)}$. If $1+x\in U^{(1)}$, then
$(1+x)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k}x^n$,
so showing that this equals $1$ would boil down to proving that
${n\choose 1}x+{n\choose 2}x^2+\ldots+{n\choose n}x^n$
is zero. Is this ever possible? I've tried proving it, but the problem seems to be if $\pi\mid {n\choose k}$ for a lot of different $k$, so we can't necessarily show that one of the above terms would have a larger absolute value than the rest, which would imply that this is impossible.
Can anyone elaborate on the number of roots of unity?
As you noticed, the first term ${n \choose 1}x$ dominates, unless $p\mid n$. Actually any root of unity $u=1+x$ in $U^{(1)}$ must be of order that is a power of $p$, for otherwise a suitable power of $u$ would have order prime to $p$, and we just saw that this cannot happen.
Such roots of unity may or may not exist in your field. For example the $p$-adic field $\mathbf{Q}_p$ has no roots of unity of order $p$, if $p>2$, because the term ${p\choose 1}x$ dominates (all the binomial coefficients save the last one are divisible by $\pi=p$ exactly once, and also $p\mid x$, so that last term $x^p$ is then also divisible by a higher power of $p$ than the first term).
But surely you can adjoin a $p$th root of unity $\zeta_p$ to $\mathbf{Q}_p$! If you do that you get a ramified extension of $\mathbf{Q}_p$. You have probably seen the same thing happen with the cyclotomic extension $\mathbf{Q}(\zeta_p)/\mathbf{Q}$ of algebraic number fields. There the prime $p$ is totally ramified.
Note also that the above argument showing that $(1+x)^p\neq1$ for a non-zero $x\in p\mathbf{Z}_p$ fails, when there is ramification. The last term $x^p$ may then be divisible by the same power of $\pi$ as the ( in the earlier case dominating) first term $px$. In the case $\mathbf{Q}_p(\zeta_p)$ we can thus deduce that $p$ must be divisible by $\pi^{p-1}$.