Let $A$ and $B$ be separated subsets of $\mathbb{R}^k$, suppose $a \in A$, $b \in B$, and define: $$p(t) = (1-t)a + tb$$ for $t \in \mathbb{R}^1$. Put $A_0 = p^{-1} (A)$, $B_0 = p^{-1} (B)$ (Thus $t \in A_0 \iff p(t) \in A$)
Prove $A_0$ and $B_0$ are separated subsets of $\mathbb{R}^1$
There was a similar question Baby Rudin's exercise 2.21, but the author's question in the comments was answered, and my question is similar to that question.
I'm having trouble seeing why $t \in A_0 \iff p(t) \in A$ is true.
What $A_0$ mean? Does it mean the set of all t that satisfies $p(t) \in A$ for ANY point $a \in A, b \in B$?
If it is for ALL $a \in A$, isn't $A_0$ simply 0, since then, $p(t) = (1-t)a + tb = a + 0*b = A$?
So regardless of what subsets $A$ and $B$ are, $A_0$ would always be ${0}$ and $B_0$ would always be ${1}$? Surely, this is not what the author intended?
But then again, if we interpret this so that there exists a point $a \in A$, $b \in B$, so that $p(t) \in A$, then $p(t)$ would really be dependent on the values of $a$ and $b$, since whether for a fixed $t$, $p(t) \in A$ would work for certain $a \in A$, $b \in B$, but not others.
So which is the correct interpretation?
If $f$ is a function from $X$ to $Y$ and $A \subseteq Y$ then $f^{-1}(A)$ is defined as $\{x \in X: f(x) \in A\}$. (Note that this does not require existence of the inverse function $f^{-1}$). From this definition it is obvious that $x \in f^{-1}(A)$ iff $f(x) \in A$.
In the definition of $A_0$ and $B_0$ we treat $a$ and $b$ as fixed. So 'for all $a$ and $b$' is not correct).