Say first we have N distinct numbers in a line, like 1,2,3,...,N, in each round, we choose a random one from the last N numbers, and put it in the end.
Asking the expected number of rounds to make the last N numbers the same.
e.g. for N = 2, first we have
1, 2
and if we chose 1, we got
1, 2, 1
and the status stays the same, since the last N numbers still all distinct. and if we chose 2, we got
1, 2, 2
and the game ends.
Suppose the expected number is S, we can write
S = 1/2 * (S + 1) + 1/2 * (1)
and we get S = 2
Things become very complicated when N > 2, so I turn for help.
UPDATE:
this occurs to me when doing a project, see this if you are interested in.
and i just wanna know whether it can be solved in a graceful way, or in a hard way but get the answer finally, so i don't need a numeric answer.
This is not a solution, but it might be helpful, and it is too long for a comment.
Your $N^N$ equations can be simplified, because you can exploit symmetry in the structure of the problem. Say that $L(S)$ is the expected number of rounds for the game to end after reaching state $S$, where $S$ is some string of length $N$. Then:
$$ \begin{eqnarray} L(AA)=L(BB)&=&0\\ L(AB)& =& 1+\frac12(L(BB)+L(BA)) \\ L(BA)& =& 1+\frac12(L(AA)+L(AB)) \\ \end{eqnarray} $$
Notice that the equations for $L(AB)$ and $L(BA)$ are identical, except that $A$ and $B$ have exchanged places. So by symmetry, $L(AB)=L(BA)$, and we get:
$$L(AB)=1+\frac12L(AB)$$
So $L(AB) = L(BA) = 2$. This tells us that the game ends in 2 steps (on average) from both these states.
Now we can consider the $N=3$ case.
$$ \begin{eqnarray} L(AAA)=L(BBB)=L(CCC)&=&0\\ L(ABC)&=&1+\frac13(L(BCA)+L(BCB)+L(BCC))\\ L(AAB)&=&1+\frac13(L(ABA)+L(ABA)+L(ABB)) \\ L(ABA)&=&1+\frac13(L(BAA)+L(BAB)+L(BAA))\\ L(ABB)&=&1+\frac13(L(BBA)+L(BBB)+L(BBB)) \\ &\vdots& \end{eqnarray} $$
This looks awful, but remember we can simplify. There aren't 27 variables here; there are only five:
$$ \begin{eqnarray} L(AAA)&=&L(BBB)=L(CCC)\\ L(ABC)&=&L(ACB)=L(BAC)=\cdots=L(CBA)\\ L(ABA)&=&L(ACA)=L(BAB)=\cdots=L(CBC)\\ L(AAB)&=&L(AAC)=L(BBA)=\cdots=L(CCB)\\ L(ABB)&=&L(ACC)=L(BAA)=\cdots=L(CBB) \end{eqnarray} $$
This allows us to reduce the original set of 27 equations in 27 variables to five equations in five variables:
$$ \begin{eqnarray} L(AAA)&=&0\\ L(ABC)&=&1+\frac13(L(ABC)+L(ABA)+L(ABB))\\ L(AAB)&=&1+\frac13(L(ABA)+L(ABA)+L(ABB)) \\ L(ABA)&=&1+\frac13(L(ABB)+L(ABA)+L(ABB))\\ L(ABB)&=&1+\frac13(L(AAB)\hphantom{+L(AAA)+L(AAA)}) \end{eqnarray} $$
I tried solving these with pen and paper and got $L(ABC)=\frac{27}{4} = 6\frac34$. I might have made a mistake, of course; it is after midnight. But as a proof of concept I think it was a success.
Anyway, I think the technique is reasonable, and it will reduce your unmanageable 10,000,000,000 equations to a much smaller set, maybe only a few dozen.
Addendum: Sadly, this only reduces the $N=10$ case from $10^{10}$ equations to 115,975. It brings it into the realm of the feasible, but not nearly as much as I had hoped.