I'm given:
$$ \mathbb{P}(A) = \mathbb{P}(B) = p $$
and we have to prove or disproof that: $$ \mathbb{P}(A\cap B) \leq p^2 $$
I have a strange solution that doesn't make any sense to me.
I'm given:
$$ \mathbb{P}(A) = \mathbb{P}(B) = p $$
and we have to prove or disproof that: $$ \mathbb{P}(A\cap B) \leq p^2 $$
I have a strange solution that doesn't make any sense to me.
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