Here's a question from someone who's just found out what Serre duality (in the case of curves) is.
It occurs to me that the popular statement which can also be interpreted as the Riemann-Roch theorem corresponds to $q=1$ in the general statement as formulated here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Serre_duality. Now what about the case $q=0$, namely $\Gamma(C,\mathcal F)\cong H^1(C, \Omega_C\otimes \mathcal F^*)^*$? Why is this obvious/wrong/unimportant?
Depending on what you call obvious, it might be - but it's neither wrong nor unimportant. Choosing $\mathcal F=\Omega_C$, it yields the following nice corollary: $$h^0(\Omega_C)=h^1(C,\Omega_C\otimes\Omega_C^\ast) = h^1(\mathcal O_C) = g(c),$$ i.e. the dimension of $\Gamma(C,\Omega_C)$ equals the genus of the curve. What you also get out of Serre Duality then is $h^1(\Omega_C)=1$ by choosing $\mathcal F=\mathcal O_C$. Now substituting these two in RR, you get $$\deg\Omega_C = 2g(C)-2.$$ Doesn't seem obvious to me, and I am sure there are a couple more applications.