If a set $X \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ is disconnected/separated, then it can be written as the union of two disjoint, relatively open subsets, say $A$ and $B$; that is $$X = A \cup B.$$ I keep reading that the above statement implies the following about the closures of $A$ and $B$, written as $\overline{A}$ and $\overline{B}$: $$\overline{A} \cap B = A \cap \overline{B} = \emptyset.$$ I don't understand why the fact that $A$ and $B$ are disjoint would imply that each of $A$ and $B$ are also disjoint with the closure of the other.
2026-03-30 02:53:39.1774839219
Sets $A, B$ disjoint $\implies \overline{A} \cap B = A \cap \overline{B} = \emptyset$?
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$B$ is open, therefore $X\setminus B$ is closed and $A\subset X\setminus B$, therefore $\overline{A}\subset X\setminus B$, i.e., $\overline{A}\cap B=\emptyset$.
So this actually shows the result without using that their union is $X$.