How to show that $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}=1$ by $\varepsilon-\delta$ argument?
In particular, students who prove this have not learned the Taylor theorem and series.
I think I need to use the Mean Value Theorem to create a suitable inequality, but I don't have any idea.
Can someone help me? Thank you in advance.
Alright so you mentioned in the comments that you're using the definition
$$\ln x=\int_1^x\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t}.$$
Let's start by establishing some inequalities. Notice first that $\frac{1}{t}\leq1$ for all $t\in[1,\infty)$, and so
$$\ln x=\int_1^x\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t}\leq\int_1^x\mathrm{d}t=x-1$$
for all $x\geq 1$. Secondly, if we substitute $u=\frac{1}{t}$, $\mathrm{d}u=-\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{t^2}$ in the integral, then
$$\ln x=-\int_1^{\frac{1}{x}}\frac{\mathrm{d}u}{u}=\int_{\frac{1}{x}}^1\frac{\mathrm{d}u}{u}\geq\int_{\frac{1}{x}}^1\mathrm{d}u=1-\frac{1}{x}$$
for all $x\geq 1$, as $\frac{1}{u}\geq 1$ for all $u\in(0,1]$. By similar arguments you can establish that these inequalities hold for all $x>0$. Now with these inequalities at hand we get that
$$\frac{1}{1+x}\leq\frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}\leq1.$$
From here just use the squeeze theorem (or do a similar argument to the proof of it) to get the result.